Re: questioning the "cohen gene" #dna


Joan Hartman <joanhartman@...>
 

Thanks for responding. Just to clarify, currently, Jews are mostly found
in haplogroup J. As I understand it, a haplogroup is defined as a pattern
of Y chromosomes that shares a unique mutation(s) but varies in the number
of copies of short sequences of bases that are inherited together. As I
understand it (and I am no scientist), haplogroup J is differentiated >from
other haplogroups by one mutation ("M304") . Haplogroup J is in turn
divided into two sub-haplogroups, J1 and J2. Sub-haplogroup J1 is defined
by another mutation ("M267"). Subhaplogroup J2 is defined by yet a third
mutation ("M172") Apparently the current thinking is that J1 and J2
separated well over 10,000 years ago. What I am trying to understand is
how, >from a scientific and genetic perspective, the cohen modal haplotype
-- which is just a pattern of six defined regions of DNA containing a set
number of copies of short sequences of bases which are inherited together
-- could have independently developed among a tribe of proto-priests who
fall into two completely different sub-haplogroups, J1 and J2, each of
which is over 10,000 years old. Unless I completely misunderstand the
science, the odds of this happening seem very small. (And if the cohen
modal haplotype predates the J1/J2 split, wouldn't we find it more widely
distributed in the population?) Even if you were to assume that this
random pattern could have arisen at the same time, 3500 years ago, in two
such men among the group of proto-priests of which Aaron was a member, how
could we then explain the fact that a far greater percentage of the
population of a region of southern Anatolia (12%) has the cohen modal
haplotype than do Jews?

Joan Hartman
Sender: Joan Hartman <joanhartman@...>

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