Has anyone come across this situation in their research of Hungarian roots?
At 12:00 AM -0600 11/29/00, JewishGen Discussion Group digest wrote:
Subject: Re: Jewish Marriages
From: "Doug Cohen" <DMCohen@...>
Date: Tue, 28 Nov 2000 21:33:52 -0500
Under Austo-Hungarian law, only one marriage permit was issued per family,
and then only if a significant fee was paid. For instance, if a family had
five children, only one could legally be married.
The result is that a great many couples were married by a Rabbi "according
to the law of Moses and the traditions of Israel", but not according to the
law of the Austro-Hungarian Empire. The marriage would therefore not be
recorded by the civil authorities.
Children of such couples would be listed in the Austro-Hungarian metrical
records as illegitimate.
Just another example of legal discrimination against Jews.
Note New E-Mail Address:
I have a question re the postings on Jewish Marriages in Poland. Did this
apply to Jewish marriages in Poland only? My husband's father was born in
Vienna, Austria in 1898, and was 2 yrs old when his parents emigrated to
the U.S. I received his birth record >from the Vienna source (through
JewishGen) and his father's surname does not appear anywhere on the birth
record. His mother's surname, Freedman is given and no name is given
for his father on the birth record.
I was advised that there was no marriage record in the Viennese archives.
And that probably the couple were married elsewhere and had not formally
registered their marriage in Vienna.
I have not been able to reconcile this since my husband's father and
mother emigrated to Vienna >from Lemberg and Lodz, respectively, and met
The passenger manifest records in 1900 for the family show the surname as
Markel, my husband's father's name.
Anyone have any information on the method of formalizing Jewish marriages
mod.- I wrote this reply privately to M. Cohen in response to his posting
shown above. It was written "shooting >from the hip" so I think others
here may wish to scrutinize my reply as well as the one >from M. Cohen.:
To M. Cohen:
Really! Can you cite the source of your statement? You are confusing the
Province of Galicia which became part of the Austrian Empire (there was no
Austro-Hungarian Empire until the Ausgleich of 1867) after the first
partition of Poland (if memory serves, that would be 1772).