Does anybody have a definitive answer to the following question, which
arises out of some remaining questions in my family history in Beuthen,
Silesia, around 1800.
At the time when Jewish heads of households adopted family names, if a man
had grown up sons who were married and had their own residences/households,
would the sons have been made (by law or by convention) to adopt the same
family name as their father, or would they have been free to adopt whatever
family name they wished?
Thanks in advance for all your help.
Henry Graupner, Guelph, Canada JGID 47249