JewishGen Discussion Group #JewishGen Re: "Schando" for Alexander #general


Stan Goodman <SPAM_FOILER@...>
 

On Wed, 30 Nov 2005 05:10:50 UTC, israel@math.ubc.ca (Robert Israel)
opined:

Stan Goodman < SPAM_FOILER@hashkedim.com > wrote:

Or maybe Austria and Hungary were at one time a single entity.
They weren't, although there were various twists and turns. They
were parts of the same empire.

For comparison, the same Greek "Alexander" has got into Arabic as
"Iskandar", because the first original syllable was mistaken to be the
Arabic definite article and the first two consonants have been turned
around, by either children or adults, I do not know. The point is that
"Sandor" and "Iskandar" are not "equivalents" (whatever that may be)
of "Alexander", but the result of mispronunciation of the original,
much as "Moishe" is not an "equivalent" of "Moshe", but a corrupted
pronunciation.
Be careful what you call corrupted. We really don't know how the
original Moshe pronounced his name, but I would guess he didn't
sound much like a 21st century Israeli. "Moishe" simply uses a
traditional Ashkenazi pronunciation system, which is no less correct
than Sephardi pronunciations, and may in some cases be closer to
the original than Modern Hebrew is.
No, it is unlikely in the extreme that "Moishe" Rabeinu pronounced his
name with a diphthong vowel. Much of the "traditional Ashkenazi
pronunciation" that you mention is the result of having originated in
proximity to Medieval French and German, Indo-European languages with
their own "traditions", lacking phonemes that Semitic languages need.
The Ashkenazi pronunciation of *Resh*, for example, is more like the R
of the French-German border region than anything that occurs in any
Semitic language. To argue that one pronunciation is as authentic as
the other is an extreme example of Political Correctness.

One might as well argue that the Patriarchs (Avrum, YItzik, and
Yankel) spoke Yiddish.

--
Stan Goodman, Qiryat Tiv'on, Israel

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