This week I asked the question on this venue, "Why would a man use a ast name as a
middle name" and used a few examples, such as"Tobias Guttman UNTERBERGER, Mendel
Balsam UNTERBERGER". The names, and others were found in a legal notice published
in the Brooklyn Eagle in 1937 in reference to people mentioned in my great aunt,
Minnie Unterberger KAPELNER'S will---she died in 1933.
Pamela Weisberger, and similarly Mark Halperin, suggested that, "In Galicia, where
most marriages were religious only, not civil, the couple was not considered
married, their children were considered illegitimate and often they had to take the
ir mothers name as their surname, but kept the father's name as a middle name,
later to make it their surname." But the published legal notice was in the second
quarter of the 20th C., 1937. Would this method of name giving still have been used
by then; or would this simply have been a matter of habit, carried forward?
Searching: Unterberger (Galicia), Kapelner (Galicia, Austria),Shtuz/Schultz
(Galicia, Austria, Ulanow), Yudin (Sharkovshchina),Luria/Lurie/Levine (Lodz,
Warsaw), Reichman (Warsaw)