We generally know that there is a custom among Ashkenazi Jews not to name
children after living relatives. Sephardim do name after living relatives,
although I know this practice did not exist among some Moroccan Jews.
However, I came across a record >from 200 years ago of Jews who were part of
the old French/German Jewish community in France. In this record, the father
was named Abraham, and the newborn child was also named Abraham. I assumed that
this meant that this family or families of Ashkenazim may have actually been
Sephardim who had assimilated, although their last names are just
Ashkenazi.Is this a valid scenario among such Ashkenazim?
On the other hand, how do we then understand that some Moroccan Jews did
not name after living relatives as was the case among other Sephardim? I
have been told some Moroccan Jews who originated in Spain did name after
the living, while others did not do it. What makes this more complicated is
that Moroccan Jews were apparently identified as being either
"Spanish-speaking" Sephardim and "Arabic-speaking" Sephardim (perhaps
northern versus southern Morocco).