Diana da Costa
I have heard it stated that in some countries overrun by the Nazis, that
local populations were required to prove their lack of Jewish ancestry by
producing their own family trees. Is this just a myth or is it true and if
so, which countries were affected? Regarding Germany, I don't think this
was the case but perhaps it might have been in some areas?
All ideas welcome on this issue!
Diana (Mohr) Gomes da Costa, Kent UK - formerly >from London -
Researcher number: 166938 email: firstname.lastname@example.org
Researches include ARNSTEIN, BACH, BASS, BERLIN, COHN, DITTMANN, FLACHFELD,
GUETERMANN, HAHN, HELLMANN, HIRSCHMANN, KOHN, KRAILSHEIMER, KUGLER, LOEWI,
MANES, MARX, MENDEL, MORGENTHAU, MOHR, ROSENFELD, ROSENWALD, UHLMANN,
WEIKERSHEIMER and ZIRNDORFER - all originally >from Bavaria, mainly Furth,
Nurnberg and Bamberg as listed in the JGFF database.