In my experience in Scotland, only a small minority of Jewish immigrants naturalised in the first place - and pre-WW1, mostly men. If the husband naturalised, not sure what the advantage was for the wife to naturalise too. It was an expensive process. I presume naturalisation allowed men to vote, but women couldn't vote anyway at that time.
Would be interested in other theories.
Please can someone explain why British naturalisation records for the early 20th century appear to be for men only.
Behind this question lies a second one: my great grandmother was born in Berlin in 1877. By 1891 she was in the UK with her parents and only sibling, a brother. She married a Polish-born man (my ggf) in Jan 1896 at the Great Synagogue in Duke's Place, Aldgate. Her husband became a British natural subject in Feb 1902. To the best of my imperfect knowledge, her parents did not naturalise. Would great grandma automatically have renounced - or even been forced to renounce - her German citizenship by virtue of her husband's naturalisation?
Thanks, Joyaa ANTARES
Gold Coast, Queensland, Australia