Re: Kosher = Hallal, but not vice versa! #general

Nick Landau <nick@...>

The statement in the title, Kosher=Hallal also implies that Hallal=Kosher.
That is what the = sign means. = represents the identity.

The Kosher rules are contained within the Hallal rules but not vice versa.
In other words the Kosher rules are a subset of the Hallal rules.
Represented as a Venn diagram, the Kosher circle would be contained within
the Hallal circle.

If the Kosher circle is S (see below) and the Hallal circle is P, the
diagram neatly illustrates that all S (Kosher) is P (Hallal) but all P
(Hallal) is not S (Kosher).


In article <v03010d01b30b7a7dce7a@[]>, (Judith Romney Wegner) wrote:

Subject: Cuisine for Geneology
From: (David Edelman)
Likewise, the Muslims dietary laws are similare enough to ours, that
we can go to each others grocers, if need be.
Not exactly. You are correct in suggesting that meat that is kosher for
Jews is halal (i.e., kosher) for Muslims. That's because the Qur'an
(sura 5:5) says explicitly that "the food of the People of the Book is
halal (lawful) for you too." But the reverse is not at all the case.
(For instance, shellfish are permitted to Muslims but not to Jews.)

You have fallen prey to a well-known logical fallacy here. "All S is P"
doesn not necessarily imply that "all P is S." Meat will be kosher for
Jews only if killed strictly according to the prescribed mishnaic and
talmudic rules (tractate Hullin) with the recitation of the designated
Hebrew formulae.

Judith Romney Wegner

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