Why is the country "Poland" used after the three partitions of Poland and its disappearance from the map #poland


To put it  another way:

- before the partitions of the 18th century: Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth (Rzeczpospolita)
- after the third partition (1795): dissolution of the Commonwealth
- 1807: creation of the Duchy of Warsaw by Napoleon
- Congress of Vienna (1815): Congress Poland (aka Kingdom of Poland), incorporated in the Russian Tsardom under a personal union (Tsar also King of Poland)
- after the uprising of 1863: Vistula Land (total integration in the Russian Tsardom)

Kind regards
Daniel Saks

Jill Whitehead

My ancestors mostly came to the UK in around 1865-1870, and some had been involved in the (2nd) 1863 Polish Uprising  (on different sides!), which came 30 years after the first 1831 uprising. The Tsar clamped down immediately after this latter uprising and introduced military conscription of young Jewish men for a period of 25 years.  At least one of my ancestors emigrated to escape this enforced conscription, being closer to the Baltic, and being right on the border with East Prussia. 

Initially, the reduced Poland had some kind of reduced sovereignty but it was subject to the Tsar's overlordship and whims, which increased with time. For example, in my ancestral area of the Suwalki Lomza gubernias in NE Poland, the Polish language was used for all BMD records up to about 1867/8, but after that they were written in Russian. As my family mostly left before that time, the records have been easier to get translated. 

This period of European History used to be taught in British schools, and I studied this for my GCE O levels in the 1960's. It is important to reflect that borders were fluid due to war and the ebb and flow of different empires. The concept of the Nation State with fixed boundaries was a 20th century idea.

Jill Whitehead, Surrey, UK

Bernard Flam

Hi from Paris,
May I add the French contribution to this history.
And not the least, as it's Napoleon himself who created "Duchy of Warsaw " on his way to Moscow.
This Duchy was his contribution to build back an independent and allied Poland in middle of defeated (for a short period) Prussian, Austrian and Russian empires. 
Next French contribution was a century later when a new independent Poland (2nd Republic) has been recreated by Versailles' treaty in 1919 after WWI.
All details :
Blayb gezunt !
Bernard Flam
Archives & history of Medem Center - Arbeter Ring (Bund -Workmen Circle of France)

Wlodek Matuszewski

Dear Marilyn
I assume it refers to the Kingdom o Poland which was established after the Congress in Vienna as a part of the Russian Tsardom. The Tsar of Russia was also  King of Poland. Of course it consisted only of a part of Poland before the partition (Rzeczpospolita) that was taken by the Russian Empire, the rest was occupied by Prussia and Austrian Empire. BTW most POles never accepted this partition and there were several uprisings against it. After uprising in 1830-31 Tsar suppressed the Kingdom of Poland and transformed it into Congress Kingdom which was totally dependent on the Russia.

Best regards
Wlodek Matuszewski
Warsaw, PL

Marilyn Levinson

Dear researchers
This use of the word Poland after the third partition is confusing to me.  To give but one example, I read an article today that said Jews in Poland were required to take surnames in 1821.  There was no Poland in 1821.  I have separate dates for the Austria-Hungarian Empire, Prussia, and Russia, so I believe they are not speaking of former Polish lands.  Can anyone explain why the country Poland is named after its existence ended?  Does this have anything to do with Congress Poland?  Thank you for your help.
Marilyn Levinson
Spring Lake NC